So--as I understand it--the wife must have signed the "ownership contract" (for want of a better term for the contract at the moment)
So those of you saying that she should not be forced to give up her ownership--you are saying that it is perfectly acceptable for someone to sign an agreement or contract, then when things don't work out properly that someone just says oh, that rule doesn't apply for me. Signing an agreement that stipulates the conditions of ownership--and stipulates what things can cause that ownership to be terminated--means nothing? The signed agreement should not be binding??